ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
- A. Postpartum depression
- B. Taking-in phase
- C. Postpartum blues
- D. Taking-hold phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum blues, not postpartum depression. Postpartum blues are common and characterized by mood swings, tearfulness, and emotional letdown shortly after delivery. The 'Taking-in phase' involves the mother focusing on her own needs, while the 'Taking-hold phase' is characterized by a desire to learn and feel competent in caring for the baby. Postpartum depression is a more severe and long-lasting condition that requires professional intervention.
3. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.
4. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urinary output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access