a nurse is caring for a client who has lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet the nurse should instruct the client to inc
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

2. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

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