a nurse is caring for a client receiving vancomycin which of the following should the nurse monitor
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum glucose levels is essential due to the impact TPN can have on glucose metabolism. Additionally, electrolytes like potassium should be monitored as they can be affected by TPN administration. Blood pressure monitoring is not directly related to TPN administration, making choices A and B the correct options to monitor in this scenario.

3. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.

4. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.

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