ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. INR levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. The nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for developing infections?
- A. Increased physical activity
- B. Lowered immune system function
- C. Regular health screenings
- D. Proper nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered immune system function. In older adults, a decline in immune system function increases the risk of developing infections. Increased physical activity (choice A) and proper nutrition (choice D) generally support immune function and overall health, reducing the risk of infections. Regular health screenings (choice C) are important for early detection of health issues but do not directly increase the risk of infections.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a sign of catheter occlusion?
- A. Bladder distention
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Dark urine
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bladder distention is the correct sign of catheter occlusion. When a catheter is occluded, the urine cannot drain properly, leading to the buildup of urine in the bladder and subsequent distention. Frequent urination, dark urine, and increased thirst are not typical signs of catheter occlusion. Frequent urination can be a sign of conditions like urinary tract infection, dark urine may indicate dehydration or other issues, and increased thirst can be related to various factors like diabetes or medication side effects.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Chest pain
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.
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