Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider’s office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.

2. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.

4. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain IV access
• B. Obtain the client’s vital signs
• C. Contact the provider
• D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.

5. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine position
• C. Side-lying position
• D. Semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

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