ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
- B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
- C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
- D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 14 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
- D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.
4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?
- A. Increase fluid intake
- B. Empty the bladder
- C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
- D. Take a sedative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Conjunctival pallor
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Glossitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conjunctival pallor. In anemia, there is a decrease in hemoglobin levels, leading to paleness of the conjunctiva. This is a common finding in individuals with anemia. Bounding pulse (choice A) is not typically associated with anemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) is not a common finding in anemia; instead, blood pressure may be low due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. Glossitis (choice D), or a swollen tongue, can be seen in certain types of anemia but is not as specific or common as conjunctival pallor.
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