Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes is experiencing hyperglycemia. What is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Encourage the client to exercise to lower blood glucose
• C. Encourage the client to drink water
• D. Administer glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin. In hyperglycemia, there is an excess of glucose in the blood, which needs to be lowered. Insulin is the primary medication used to lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Encouraging the client to exercise may further increase blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones, so it is not the priority. While staying hydrated is important, it will not directly address the high blood glucose levels seen in hyperglycemia. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, so it is not the priority in this situation.

2. What should a healthcare professional do when a client with anorexia nervosa insists on working out constantly?

• A. Allow the client to workout and continue their regimen
• B. Restrict the client's workout regimen to one hour a day
• C. Discuss the risks of over-exercising with the client
• D. Speak to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client with anorexia nervosa who insists on working out constantly, it is crucial to address the situation sensitively. Speaking to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession is the most appropriate action. This approach allows the healthcare professional to understand the underlying reasons for the behavior and work towards a solution together. Choices A and B could potentially exacerbate the client's condition by either enabling the behavior or imposing restrictions without addressing the root cause. While choice C is important, simply discussing the risks may not address the client's compulsion to exercise excessively.

3. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

• A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
• B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
• D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

4. What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections.
• B. Bacterial infections typically cause high fever.
• C. Both bacterial and viral infections cause rashes.
• D. Viral infections cause sudden onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.

5. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

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