Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes is experiencing hyperglycemia. What is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Encourage the client to exercise to lower blood glucose
• C. Encourage the client to drink water
• D. Administer glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin. In hyperglycemia, there is an excess of glucose in the blood, which needs to be lowered. Insulin is the primary medication used to lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Encouraging the client to exercise may further increase blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones, so it is not the priority. While staying hydrated is important, it will not directly address the high blood glucose levels seen in hyperglycemia. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, so it is not the priority in this situation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

• A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
• D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

4. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
• B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
• C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
• D. I should report any chest pain during the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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