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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Asterixis.
- B. Jaundice.
- C. Ascites.
- D. Splenomegaly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.
2. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?
- A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
- B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
- C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
- D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used
Correct answer: A
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.
3. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.
4. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?
- A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
- B. Retention of bile salts
- C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
- D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.
5. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Increase intake of dairy products.
- C. Limit intake of citrus fruits.
- D. Avoid high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of dairy products, limiting citrus fruits, or avoiding high-sodium foods are not directly related to the mechanism of action of warfarin or its dietary considerations.
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