a 30 year old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain fever and jaundice laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin l
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1. What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels is classic for acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the bile ducts. Acute hepatitis typically presents with other liver function abnormalities, while acute cholecystitis is characterized by gallbladder inflammation. Pancreatic cancer would not typically present with these specific symptoms and lab findings.

2. A 9-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which symptom will her parents most likely report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased thirst and fluid intake, such as drinking more soft drinks than previously, is a common symptom of diabetes mellitus in children. This increased thirst is due to the body trying to eliminate excess sugar through urination, leading to dehydration and the need for more fluids. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in this scenario.

3. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.

5. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

Similar Questions

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