Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?

• A. Acute hepatitis
• B. Acute cholecystitis
• C. Acute cholangitis
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels is classic for acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the bile ducts. Acute hepatitis typically presents with other liver function abnormalities, while acute cholecystitis is characterized by gallbladder inflammation. Pancreatic cancer would not typically present with these specific symptoms and lab findings.

2. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

• A. Typically requires colonic resection
• B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
• C. Is only seen in the elderly
• D. Requires colonoscopic intervention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

3. A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Consuming a low-protein snack with the medication can help reduce nausea. The protein in food can compete with levodopa for absorption, so taking it with a low-protein snack may improve its effectiveness and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach may exacerbate nausea. Option C is incorrect because increasing intake of dairy products is not recommended to alleviate nausea. Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without healthcare provider guidance can lead to adverse effects.

4. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Frank red bleeding from the surgical site
• C. Clear drainage from the surgical wound
• D. Decrease in heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

5. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

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