ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
- B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
- C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
- D. Place the patient in a side-lying position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.
2. When should a nurse suction a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Every 6 hours, regardless of distress signs
- B. When the client's respiratory rate drops below 10
- C. When the client shows signs of irritability
- D. When the client begins to cough or show signs of airway blockage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the client when they show signs of irritability. Signs of irritability, such as restlessness or agitation, can indicate the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. This early indicator suggests that there may be an accumulation of secretions affecting the client's airway. Suctioning should be performed promptly to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because suctioning should be based on clinical signs and symptoms indicating the need for intervention, rather than a fixed schedule or specific vital sign parameters.
3. A nurse is providing care for a client with dementia who frequently wanders. What is the best strategy to ensure their safety?
- A. Use restraints to prevent wandering
- B. Encourage the client to walk in a monitored area
- C. Place a bed exit alarm system
- D. Ask family members to stay with the client at all times
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best strategy to ensure the safety of a client with dementia who frequently wanders is to place a bed exit alarm system. This system alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice A, using restraints, is not the best approach as it can lead to complications and is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. Choice B, encouraging the client to walk in a monitored area, may not be effective in preventing wandering as the client may still wander away. Choice D, asking family members to stay with the client at all times, may not be feasible or practical, especially for round-the-clock supervision.
4. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
- C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
- D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.
5. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
- B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase intake of dairy products
- D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access