how should a nurse respond to a patient experiencing a seizure
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

2. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

3. A nurse is teaching dietary guidelines to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following food choices is appropriate for the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, potato pancakes. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods. Potato pancakes are gluten-free, making them a suitable choice for someone with celiac disease. Choice A, white flour tortillas, contains gluten from wheat flour, making it unsuitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice C, wheat crackers, also contain gluten and should be avoided. Choice D, canned barley soup, contains barley which is a gluten-containing grain and is not appropriate for someone with celiac disease.

4. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

5. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

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