Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

2. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

• A. Maintain a calm manner
• B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
• C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia due to its effect on the heart's electrical conduction system. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are not direct signs of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia.

4. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has dependent personality disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Limit social interactions
• B. Demonstrate assertiveness
• C. Follow a rigid schedule
• D. Perform deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Demonstrate assertiveness.' For clients with dependent personality disorder, assertiveness training is crucial as it helps them become more independent and develop the skills to express their own needs and preferences effectively. Choice A ('Limit social interactions') is incorrect because promoting healthy social interactions is important for individuals with this disorder to build confidence and reduce dependency. Choice C ('Follow a rigid schedule') is incorrect as overly rigid schedules may exacerbate feelings of helplessness and dependence. Choice D ('Perform deep breathing exercises') is not directly related to addressing the core issues of dependent personality disorder, which primarily involve developing self-reliance and assertiveness.

5. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

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