ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?
- A. 20 mL
- B. 15 mL
- C. 25 mL
- D. 10 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.
2. What are the key components of a respiratory assessment?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Inspection, Observation, Auscultation, Percussion
- C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
- D. Observation, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for symmetry and signs of distress, palpating for tenderness or abnormal masses, performing percussion to assess underlying tissues, and auscultating lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect as observation is a broad term that can encompass both inspection and palpation. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation is usually performed after inspection and palpation. Choice D is incorrect as observation should be more specific, and auscultation is a key component that is typically done last in a respiratory assessment.
3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Notify the provider and discontinue the IV infusion
- C. Increase the IV flow rate to clear the blockage
- D. Elevate the extremity and apply an ice pack
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
5. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?
- A. Assess facial drooping
- B. Monitor speech difficulties
- C. Evaluate arm weakness
- D. Check for time of onset of symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.
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