Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome, and how should they be managed?

• A. Weight gain, moon face; administer corticosteroids
• B. Hirsutism and thin extremities; manage with diuretics
• C. Purple striae, muscle weakness; provide dietary counseling
• D. Hypertension and bruising; manage with fluid restriction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome are weight gain and a moon face. Corticosteroids are used to manage Cushing's syndrome by reducing the overproduction of cortisol. Choice B is incorrect because hirsutism and thin extremities are not typical signs of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as purple striae and muscle weakness are more characteristic of the syndrome. Choice D is also incorrect as hypertension and bruising are not primary signs of Cushing's syndrome.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
• C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.

3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client who had a vaginal birth 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?

• A. Bright red bleeding
• B. Burning with urination
• C. Headache
• D. Heavy lochia flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Burning with urination.' Burning with urination can indicate a urinary tract infection postpartum, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Bright red bleeding and heavy lochia flow are expected findings in the early postpartum period as the uterus continues to contract and expel lochia. A headache alone is not uncommon postpartum and is often attributed to hormonal changes, dehydration, or fatigue, and can be managed with adequate rest, hydration, and pain relief. Therefore, the priority here is to address the potential infection indicated by burning with urination.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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