Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is constipated. What intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a laxative to relieve discomfort
• B. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber intake
• C. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve
• D. Administer a stool softener as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for constipation is to encourage the client to increase dietary fiber intake. Fiber helps promote bowel movements and relieve constipation by adding bulk to the stool. Administering a laxative (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention as it can lead to dependence. Encouraging rest (Choice C) is not directly helpful in relieving constipation. While administering a stool softener (Choice D) can be beneficial, increasing fiber intake is generally preferred as the initial intervention.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Muscle stiffness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperreflexia
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.

3. A client is experiencing difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling catheter. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?

• A. Assess for bladder distention after 4 hours
• B. Pour warm water over the perineum
• C. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake
• D. Restrict movement for at least 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to assist the client who is experiencing difficulty voiding after the removal of an indwelling catheter is to pour warm water over the perineum. This technique can help stimulate urination by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and improving blood flow to the area. Assessing for bladder distention after 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to assist the client in voiding. Restricting the client's oral fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate the issue by reducing urine production. Restricting movement for at least 12 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may lead to discomfort and other complications.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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