Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse offer?

• A. Milk
• B. Vegetable juice
• C. Chicken broth
• D. Orange juice with pulp

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A clear liquid diet consists of easily digestible transparent liquids. Chicken broth is an appropriate choice as it meets the criteria of being clear and liquid, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. Milk, vegetable juice, and orange juice with pulp are not considered clear liquids. Milk is not transparent, vegetable juice is not clear, and orange juice with pulp contains solid particles, all of which do not align with the requirements of a clear liquid diet.

2. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hypertension about medication adherence, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. You can stop taking your medication once your blood pressure is normal.
• B. You should take your medication at the same time every day.
• C. You can double your dose if you miss a dose.
• D. You should take your medication with a high-fat meal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should take your medication at the same time every day.' Taking medication consistently at the same time daily is crucial for maintaining steady blood levels and effectively managing hypertension. It helps ensure that the medication works optimally and provides the best control of blood pressure throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect because stopping medication once blood pressure is normal can lead to a relapse or worsening of hypertension. Choice C is incorrect as doubling the dose without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as taking medication with a high-fat meal can affect its absorption and efficacy.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client with osteoporosis about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the professional recommend?

• A. Green beans
• B. Fortified cereal
• C. Red meat
• D. White bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fortified cereal is the correct answer as it is an excellent choice for individuals with osteoporosis due to its high calcium and vitamin D content, both essential nutrients for bone health. These nutrients help in maintaining bone density and strength, which is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis. Green beans (choice A) do not provide as much calcium and vitamin D as fortified cereal. Red meat (choice C) is a good source of protein but is not as rich in calcium and vitamin D compared to fortified cereal. White bread (choice D) lacks the essential nutrients needed for bone health, making it a less suitable choice for individuals with osteoporosis.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of iodine-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of iodine-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of iodine-rich foods is beneficial for clients with hypothyroidism as iodine is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis. Adequate iodine intake helps to support thyroid function in individuals with hypothyroidism, making choice A the most appropriate response indicating an understanding of the dietary management for this condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing iodine-rich foods, increasing potassium-rich foods, or decreasing sodium-rich foods are not the recommended dietary modifications for hypothyroidism. In fact, decreasing iodine-rich foods could exacerbate hypothyroidism due to the essential role of iodine in thyroid hormone production.

5. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

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