ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client with a new diagnosis of hyperlipidemia is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of fiber.
- B. I will increase my intake of red meat.
- C. I will decrease my intake of saturated fats.
- D. I will increase my intake of salt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing saturated fats is essential in managing hyperlipidemia. Saturated fats can raise LDL cholesterol levels, contributing to the condition. By reducing intake of saturated fats, the client can help lower their cholesterol levels and improve their overall lipid profile. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake (Choice A) is not recommended as fiber can help lower cholesterol levels. Increasing red meat intake (Choice B) is not advisable as red meat is often high in saturated fats. Increasing salt intake (Choice D) is unrelated to managing hyperlipidemia and can even be detrimental due to its association with high blood pressure.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
4. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) states, 'I will shake the inhaler before each use.' Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will shake the inhaler before each use.
- B. I will use the inhaler immediately after meals.
- C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
- D. I will clean the mouthpiece with alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because shaking the inhaler before each use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, which is essential for effective administration. This action helps to disperse the medication evenly, enhancing its efficacy when inhaled. Proper mixing through shaking prevents inconsistent dosing and ensures that the client receives the correct amount of medication with each use.
5. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.
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