ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
- C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
- D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
- C. Eat foods high in potassium.
- D. Expect weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.
3. A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should prepare the client by reinforcing information about which post-operative care measure?
- A. You will be on bed rest for the first 48 hours after surgery.
- B. You will be encouraged to cough and deep breathe frequently.
- C. You will be discharged within 24 hours if no complications arise.
- D. You will not be able to eat or drink for 24 hours after surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe frequently is essential post-operative care to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia after CABG surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because post-CABG surgery, early mobilization is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pneumonia. Discharge within 24 hours is unlikely after CABG surgery, and early oral intake is encouraged to promote recovery and prevent complications.
4. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
5. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.
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