Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
• C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
• D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

3. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

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