ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime
- B. Monitor your blood glucose level before each meal
- C. Stop taking the medication if you develop muscle pain
- D. You may experience diarrhea with this medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You may experience diarrhea with this medication.' Diarrhea is a common side effect of metformin, particularly when initiating the medication. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential side effect. Option A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is not directly related to metformin use. Option C is incorrect as muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin and does not warrant stopping the medication.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Erythrocyte count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Lymphocyte count
- D. Thrombocyte count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
5. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
- B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
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