Nursing Elites

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

• A. Abruptio placentae
• B. Hydatidiform mole
• C. Preterm labor
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

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