a nurse is admitting a client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 which of the following questions is most appropriate to a
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

3. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.

4. A charge nurse is discussing the use of applying ice to a client’s injured knee with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following is a benefit of this treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased capillary permeability. Ice application helps decrease capillary permeability, which in turn reduces swelling and inflammation at the injury site. This vasoconstriction effect helps to limit the extent of the injury. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Applying ice locally does not produce a systemic analgesic effect but rather a localized numbing effect. It does not increase metabolism but rather slows down metabolic processes in the affected area. Additionally, ice application causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevating the affected extremity helps improve venous return, reduces edema, alleviates discomfort, and promotes healing in clients with DVT. Limiting fluid intake can be detrimental as adequate hydration is important for circulation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge clots and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, which is not recommended for DVT as it can impede blood flow further.

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