Nursing Elites

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an anticoagulant
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. It can be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

5. When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It is a stimulant
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.

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