ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
2. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Feelings of dread
- B. Rapid speech
- C. Purposeless activity
- D. Heightened perceptual field
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove dirty linens after double-bagging them
- B. Wear a dosimeter badge in the client’s room
- C. Limit visitors to 1 hour per day
- D. Ensure family remains 3 feet away from the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Bleeding time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
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