ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
2. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.â€
- B. “The amount of protein in my blood is high.â€
- C. “I might have some pain and gas in my stomach from this condition.â€
- D. “I will use a soft bristle toothbrush, so my gums don’t bleed.â€
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.†Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.
3. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. We will place the baby on its back to sleep
- B. We will give the baby a pacifier at bedtime
- C. We will keep the baby's crib free of blankets and toys
- D. We will leave the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.
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