ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?
- A. Abnormal movements of the mouth
- B. Inability to stand without assistance
- C. Paralysis of the right arm
- D. Loss of appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.
2. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in magnesium
- B. Take furosemide with food
- C. Eat foods that are rich in potassium
- D. Expect a decrease in blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
- D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.
4. A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?
- A. Wear an N95 respirator while caring for the client.
- B. Use a dedicated stethoscope for the client.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urinary output.
- D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.
5. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?
- A. Physical therapist
- B. Speech-language pathologist
- C. Social worker
- D. Respiratory therapist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.
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