Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Apply an internal fetal monitor
• D. Administer an analgesic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.

2. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

3. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of adolescents. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Expect pain in the testicles during self-examination.
• B. The testicles should be uniform in size and shape when examined.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. The testicles will shrink if cancer is present.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because during a testicular self-examination, it is crucial to note a uniform consistency of the testicles. Any lumps, changes in size, or inconsistencies should be reported to a healthcare provider promptly. Choice A is incorrect because pain is not typically expected during a testicular self-examination. Choice B is incorrect as uniform size and shape are not as relevant as uniform consistency. Choice D is incorrect; testicular cancer usually causes enlargement rather than shrinking of the testicles.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

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