Nursing Elites

1. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

• A. Cesarean birth
• B. Vaginal birth
• C. Anemia
• D. Multiparity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

2. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 2.6 mL
• B. 2.2 mL
• C. 3.5 mL
• D. 5.0 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

4. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of omeprazole. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food
• B. Avoid taking it with NSAIDs
• C. Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. It can cause drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can mask symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding; clients should be monitored for this. Choices A and B are incorrect because omeprazole is usually taken before meals, and while it is important to avoid NSAIDs if possible due to their effects on the stomach, it is not directly related to omeprazole use. Choice D is also incorrect as omeprazole is not typically associated with causing drowsiness.

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