Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

2. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

• A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
• C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

3. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

• A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
• B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
• C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
• D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

4. A nurse is providing education on the use of corticosteroids. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
• B. Avoid abrupt discontinuation
• C. Long-term use may have risks
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of hyperglycemia when educating on corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels, making it essential to watch for hyperglycemia, especially in diabetic patients. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids should not be abruptly stopped due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroids are associated with various adverse effects, making long-term use risky. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not typically a primary concern directly related to corticosteroid use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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