ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
- B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
- C. No action is needed at this time.
- D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
2. The major focus of nutritional recommendations in this century has shifted to:
- A. prevention and control of chronic diseases.
- B. improved sanitation and public health.
- C. prevention and control of infectious diseases.
- D. development of healthful foods using food technology.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: prevention and control of chronic diseases. In this century, nutritional recommendations have increasingly emphasized the importance of preventing and managing chronic diseases like obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and cancer. Lifestyle factors such as diet play a significant role in the development of these conditions. Option B, improved sanitation and public health, although important for overall health, is not the primary focus of nutritional recommendations. Option C, prevention and control of infectious diseases, is also crucial but does not reflect the current major focus of nutritional recommendations. Option D, development of healthful foods using food technology, is a valid area of interest but is not the primary shift in focus observed in nutritional recommendations.
3. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Transverse
- C. Posterior
- D. Frank breech
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.
4. A patient with chronic kidney disease reports feeling light-headed after taking their medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Take the medication at bedtime
- C. Stand up slowly to prevent dizziness
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are prone to orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the patient to stand up slowly. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of orthostatic hypotension and dizziness in this scenario.
5. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.
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