a nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

2. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.

4. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of hydrocodone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering hydrocodone, a healthcare professional should assess the respiratory rate first because hydrocodone is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring the respiratory rate helps to detect any signs of respiratory distress or depression early on. Assessing blood pressure, pain level, or heart rate is also important but not the priority when administering hydrocodone, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more critical concern.

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