ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
2. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Potassium levels
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?
- A. Macrosomia
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Cleft palate
- D. Spina bifida
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.
5. A nurse receives a report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled for chemotherapy with a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL
- B. A client 24 hours post-TURP with small blood clots in the catheter
- C. A client receiving a blood transfusion who reports low back pain
- D. A client with a new colostomy and a reddish-pink stoma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Low back pain during a blood transfusion is a classic sign of a transfusion reaction, specifically a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or hemolytic reaction, both of which require immediate attention to prevent serious complications. Assessing this client first is crucial to ensure prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening complications and can be addressed after the client experiencing low back pain during a blood transfusion is stabilized.
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