ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
2. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
- B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
- C. Use only respiratory protection.
- D. Ask a colleague for advice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.
3. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?
- A. Restrain the client
- B. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Monitor the client's vitals every 2 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.
4. A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. The chest
- B. Standing
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.
5. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?
- A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
- B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
- C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
- D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access