Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and has an NG tube for suction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Mix medications with enteral feedings.
• B. Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration.
• C. Insert medications directly into the NG tube without dilution.
• D. Connect the NG tube to continuous suction after medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications to a client with an NG tube for suction who is NPO is to clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration. This is done to allow for proper absorption of the medications before resuming suction. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be mixed with enteral feedings as it may affect the drug's effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as medications should not be inserted directly into the NG tube without dilution, as this can cause clogging or affect the tube. Choice D is incorrect because connecting the NG tube to continuous suction after medication administration can interfere with the absorption of the medications.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

• A. Abnormal mouth movements
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

3. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?

• A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
• B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
• C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
• D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

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