ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?
- A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
- B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
- C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
- D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
- B. Avoid rubbing the eye
- C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
- D. Avoid lying on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.
3. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
- B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
- C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
- D. Altered mental status and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.
4. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction who is concerned about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?
- A. Instruct the client to remain in bed until the fatigue resolves
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to perform all self-care tasks for the client
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach allows the client to regain confidence in their abilities and fosters independence. Option A is incorrect as prolonged bed rest can lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Option C is not promoting independence as it involves delegating all self-care tasks to others. Option D involves family assistance, which may be helpful but does not directly promote the client's independence in self-care.
5. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?
- A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
- B. Age, gender, and family history
- C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
- D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.
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