ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?
- A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
- B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
- C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
- D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.
2. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
3. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?
- A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
- B. Avoid fluids between meals
- C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
- D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.
4. The nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
- A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
- B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
- C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach encourages the client to regain autonomy by engaging in self-care activities at their own pace. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but does not directly address the client's concern regarding fatigue and self-care. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) may hinder the client's independence by taking over tasks the client could potentially perform. Asking about family assistance (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
- B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
- C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access