Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
• C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
• D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an influenza virus immunization to a client by the intradermal route. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Avoid massaging the site after injection
• B. Massage the site after injection
• C. Use a circular motion to rub the site
• D. Apply a bandage after injecting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after administering an influenza virus immunization by the intradermal route is to avoid massaging the site. Massaging the site can spread the vaccine, potentially reducing its effectiveness. Rubbing the site in a circular motion or applying a bandage are not recommended actions as they can also interfere with the proper absorption of the vaccine.

3. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

4. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food.
• B. I will contact my provider if my heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.
• C. I should take an antacid with this medication to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. I will need to take this medication for 14 days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should contact their provider if their heart rate drops below 60 beats per minute, as this could indicate digoxin toxicity.

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