Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
• C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
• D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.

2. What are the signs of hypovolemic shock and what is the nurse's role in management?

• A. Rapid pulse, low blood pressure; administer IV fluids
• B. Cold extremities, rapid breathing; administer oxygen
• C. Decreased urine output, sweating; administer diuretics
• D. Weak pulse, clammy skin; administer vasopressors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypovolemic shock are a rapid pulse and low blood pressure. Administering IV fluids helps to restore circulating volume, which is essential in managing hypovolemic shock. Choice B is incorrect because cold extremities and rapid breathing are not typical signs of hypovolemic shock. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics would further decrease circulating volume, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect as administering vasopressors may further compromise perfusion in hypovolemic shock.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit fluid intake to 3 liters per day
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day
• C. Drink 4 liters of water per day
• D. Restrict water intake to 1 liter per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day.' For clients with heart failure, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day helps maintain fluid balance and prevents exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because consuming 3 liters, 4 liters, or limiting water intake to 1 liter per day, respectively, can lead to fluid overload in clients with heart failure.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

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