Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
• C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
• D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.

2. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

3. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
• B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
• C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
• D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease needs dietary restrictions. What restriction is necessary?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Limit potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Increase phosphorus intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium-rich foods for clients with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function, leading to complications. This restriction helps in managing the condition and preventing further health issues. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can burden the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as increasing phosphorus intake can be harmful for individuals with kidney disease.

5. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

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