Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
• C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
• D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Heart rate 60/min
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.

4. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?

• A. Paradoxical excitement
• B. Headache
• C. Slowing of reflexes
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
• B. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• C. Use a bed exit alarm system
• D. Keep the client's room dark and quiet to reduce stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised is to use a bed exit alarm system (Choice C). A bed exit alarm can alert staff when the client tries to leave the bed, helping to prevent falls. Using restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to physical and psychological harm. While having family members present (Choice B) can be beneficial, it may not be feasible at all times. Keeping the client's room dark and quiet (Choice D) may not address the immediate safety concern of the client attempting to get out of bed.

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