Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of the nurse in the care of a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a protective dressing
• B. Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently
• C. Apply pressure to the ulcer and monitor for signs of healing
• D. Provide pain relief and administer antibiotics as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently. When caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the wound regularly to monitor its progress and prevent complications. Additionally, repositioning the patient frequently helps to relieve pressure on the affected area, prevent further damage, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because while cleaning the wound is important, applying a protective dressing is not the primary role of the nurse in managing a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the ulcer is harmful, and monitoring for signs of healing should not involve applying pressure. Choice D is incorrect as providing pain relief and administering antibiotics may be necessary but are not the primary interventions for managing a pressure ulcer.

2. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

3. What are the complications of untreated hyperglycemia?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis and dehydration
• B. Hypoglycemia and hypertension
• C. Infection and liver failure
• D. Pulmonary edema and electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic ketoacidosis and dehydration. Untreated hyperglycemia can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication characterized by high blood sugar, the presence of ketones in the urine, and acidosis. Dehydration is also a common complication of untreated hyperglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypertension are not typical complications of untreated hyperglycemia. Infection and liver failure, as well as pulmonary edema and electrolyte imbalance, are also not direct complications of untreated hyperglycemia.

4. What are the nursing considerations for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Educate patient on dietary restrictions
• C. Ensure adequate hydration and nutrition
• D. Ensure that the patient remains immobile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding.' When a patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy, nurses must monitor the patient's INR levels to ensure that the anticoagulants are within the therapeutic range and also watch for signs of bleeding, which is a common side effect of anticoagulants. Option B is incorrect because while patient education is important, dietary restrictions are not a direct nursing consideration when administering anticoagulant therapy. Option C is not a specific nursing consideration related to anticoagulant therapy. Option D is incorrect as keeping the patient immobile is not a standard nursing practice for patients on anticoagulant therapy, as mobility is often encouraged to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis.

5. What should a healthcare provider monitor in a client with constipation?

• A. Monitor the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours
• B. Increase the client's activity to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Encourage the client to use a stool softener
• D. Encourage the client to rest in bed until constipation resolves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a stool softener is the appropriate intervention for constipation. Stool softeners help to soften the stool, making it easier to pass and relieving constipation without straining the client. Monitoring bowel sounds (Choice A) may be relevant for other gastrointestinal issues but is not specifically indicated for constipation. Increasing activity (Choice B) can be helpful in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for constipation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can worsen constipation by reducing mobility and promoting inactivity.

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