Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

2. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg twice daily.
• B. Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily.
• C. Give the client ginseng tea with each meal.
• D. Instruct the client to soak in a bath with a water temperature of 105°F for 15 minutes daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mild headaches during pregnancy can be common and are often related to stress and tension. Recommending conscious relaxation techniques daily can help to relieve tension, reduce stress, and alleviate headaches without the need for medication, which is safer during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect as ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because ginseng tea is not recommended during pregnancy as it may have adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as soaking in a hot bath with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not safe during pregnancy.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Nausea
• B. Irregular vaginal bleeding
• C. Weight gain
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.

5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
• B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
• C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
• D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

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