a nurse is assisting with the care for a client who is receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor the nurse should monitor the client for wh
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

2. A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.

3. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.

4. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

5. When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients who do not like milk should continue taking calcium supplements to ensure they meet their increased calcium needs while breastfeeding. Calcium is essential for bone health, and during breastfeeding, the mother's calcium requirements are higher. While caffeine in coffee can be consumed in moderation, folic acid does not directly impact milk supply, and the additional 330 calories per day are recommended but not the focus of this question.

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