ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
- A. Blood-tinged sputum
- B. Dizziness
- C. Pallor
- D. Somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.
2. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Reinforce the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed
- B. Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
- C. Monitor the infant for signs of failure to thrive
- D. Check the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperactivity
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone (Risperdal) can lead to metabolic side effects, such as hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because risperidone is not typically associated with hypertension. Choice B, Weight loss, is less common with risperidone use as it can lead to weight gain. Choice C, Hyperactivity, is not a common side effect of risperidone; instead, it is more known for sedative effects.
4. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?
- A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
- B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.
5. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?
- A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
- B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
- C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
- D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99