ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Disulfiram
- C. Chlordiazepoxide
- D. Phenobarbital
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
2. What are early indicators of dehydration?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.
3. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
- C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
- D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.
4. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administer a sedative to reduce agitation
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Increase environmental stimulation
- D. Limit noise and provide a calm environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.
5. During the admission of a client with a latex allergy, which of the following supplies has the potential to contain latex?
- A. Urinary catheters
- B. Indwelling catheters
- C. Sterile gloves
- D. Sterile gowns
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary catheters. Urinary catheters often contain latex, which can trigger an allergic reaction in clients with latex allergy. Indwelling catheters (choice B), sterile gloves (choice C), and sterile gowns (choice D) can be latex-free alternatives. However, urinary catheters are more commonly made with latex, making them a higher risk for clients with latex allergies.
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