ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Disulfiram
- C. Chlordiazepoxide
- D. Phenobarbital
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
2. What is the proper technique for measuring a patient's blood pressure?
- A. Place the cuff at heart level and listen for Korotkoff sounds
- B. Ensure the patient is in a seated position and inflate the cuff to 180 mmHg
- C. Use a manual sphygmomanometer and measure blood pressure on both arms
- D. Monitor pulse rate and apply pressure to the brachial artery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for measuring blood pressure involves placing the cuff at heart level to ensure accurate readings. Listening for Korotkoff sounds helps determine the systolic and diastolic pressures. Choice B is incorrect as inflating the cuff to 180 mmHg is excessive and can lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as it is unnecessary to measure blood pressure on both arms unless there is a specific medical reason to do so. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring pulse rate and applying pressure to the brachial artery are not part of the standard blood pressure measurement technique.
3. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
- B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
- C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
- D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.
4. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
- A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
- C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
- D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
5. A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are: BUN - 25, K+ - 4.0 mEq/L. Which nutrient should be restricted in the client's diet?
- A. Protein
- B. Fats
- C. Carbohydrates
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema, protein should be restricted in the diet to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Excessive protein intake can lead to increased BUN levels, which can further stress the kidneys. Restricting protein can help prevent further kidney damage. Fats, carbohydrates, and magnesium do not directly impact kidney function in the same way as protein does, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
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