a nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 80 mgdl which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.

2. What are the major risk factors for stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking are major risk factors for stroke. These factors contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, which can lead to a stroke. While obesity and lack of exercise are risk factors for cardiovascular diseases, they are not as directly linked to stroke as hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking. Family history of cardiovascular disease may increase the overall risk of heart problems, but it is not as specific to stroke as the factors listed in option A. Age and gender can influence the risk of stroke, but they are not modifiable risk factors like hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking, which can be reduced through lifestyle changes.

3. A nurse is maintaining droplet precautions for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when maintaining droplet precautions for a client with meningitis is to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client. This is essential to prevent the transmission of meningitis via respiratory droplets. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown is not specifically required for droplet precautions. Choice B suggests maintaining a distance of 6 feet, which is more applicable to airborne precautions, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed and disposed of properly, but it is not related to droplet precautions specifically.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

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