ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. What are the primary goals of post-operative care for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery?
- A. Pain Management
- B. Wound Care
- C. Prevention of Complications
- D. Digestive Function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain Management. After abdominal surgery, one of the primary goals of post-operative care is to manage the patient's pain effectively to ensure their comfort and promote recovery. While wound care, prevention of complications, and ensuring digestive function are also important aspects of post-operative care, pain management takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's well-being and recovery process.
2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Restlessness
- D. Avoidance of social situations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.
3. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
- B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
- C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
- B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
- C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
- D. HbA1c level less than 7%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.
5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
- D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.
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