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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. What are the primary goals of post-operative care for a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery?
- A. Pain Management
- B. Wound Care
- C. Prevention of Complications
- D. Digestive Function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain Management. After abdominal surgery, one of the primary goals of post-operative care is to manage the patient's pain effectively to ensure their comfort and promote recovery. While wound care, prevention of complications, and ensuring digestive function are also important aspects of post-operative care, pain management takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's well-being and recovery process.
2. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Fever
- B. Ataxia
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.
3. A client is expressing concern about extreme fatigue following an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy to promote independence?
- A. Instruct the client to rest until fully recovered
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence. This approach helps the client regain confidence and autonomy in performing self-care activities. Instructing the client to rest until fully recovered (Choice A) may lead to decreased muscle strength and independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice C) does not empower the client to actively participate in their care. Involving the client's family (Choice D) may provide support but does not directly encourage the client's independence.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?
- A. Monitor skin turgor and check urine output
- B. Assess for jugular venous distention
- C. Auscultate lung sounds and monitor for fever
- D. Monitor for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.
5. What are the early signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor
- B. Weight loss and increased urination
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Hypoglycemia and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.
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