a nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving iv magnesium sulfate which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate ad
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered to counteract the effects of magnesium and restore calcium levels. Magnesium toxicity can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate helps in reversing these effects by competing with magnesium and preventing its adverse manifestations. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is not the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.

2. During a vaginal exam on a client in labor who reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back, a nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. Which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention for the nurse to perform to relieve the client's discomfort?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases where the fetus is in a posterior position causing severe pressure and pain in the lower back during labor, applying counter-pressure is the most effective nonpharmacological intervention. Counter-pressure helps lift the fetal head off the spinal nerve, offering relief to the client. This technique is evidence-based and recommended to alleviate discomfort associated with a posterior fetal position. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective in this situation. While a back rub or playing music may provide some comfort, they do not directly address the issue caused by the fetal head's position. Similarly, a foot massage may offer relaxation but may not significantly relieve the specific discomfort arising from the posterior fetal position and the associated lower back pain.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

4. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

5. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

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