Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?

• A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
• B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
• D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.

3. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
• B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit fluid intake to 3 liters per day
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day
• C. Drink 4 liters of water per day
• D. Restrict water intake to 1 liter per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day.' For clients with heart failure, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day helps maintain fluid balance and prevents exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because consuming 3 liters, 4 liters, or limiting water intake to 1 liter per day, respectively, can lead to fluid overload in clients with heart failure.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

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