Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about cancer prevention. The nurse should include that frequent consumption of which of the following foods increases the risk for developing cancer?

• A. Lamb
• B. Poultry
• C. Tuna
• D. Beef

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamb. Lamb is high in saturated fat, which is linked to an increased risk of developing cancer. Choice B (Poultry) is a lean protein source and is not associated with an increased cancer risk. Choice C (Tuna) is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which have anti-inflammatory properties that may reduce cancer risk. Choice D (Beef) is also high in saturated fat like lamb, making it a poor choice for cancer prevention.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
• B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
• C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. What should be emphasized?

• A. Increase protein intake to promote healing
• B. Limit intake of potassium and phosphorus
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Encourage the intake of high-sodium foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize limiting the intake of potassium and phosphorus for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive intake of potassium and phosphorus can lead to complications in kidney disease patients. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can worsen kidney function in such clients. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging high-sodium foods can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are not beneficial for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

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