ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Monitor for infection and ensure airway patency
- B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified oxygen
- C. Clean the stoma and change tracheostomy ties
- D. Educate the patient on tracheostomy care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess a patient with a tracheostomy, the healthcare professional should primarily focus on monitoring for infection and ensuring the airway remains patent. Choice A is the correct answer as these actions are crucial for tracheostomy management. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) are interventions that may be necessary based on the assessment findings but are not the initial assessment steps. Similarly, cleaning the stoma and changing tracheostomy ties (Choice C) are important aspects of tracheostomy care but do not specifically address the initial assessment. Educating the patient on tracheostomy care (Choice D) is important, but it is not the primary assessment action needed when assessing a patient with a tracheostomy.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
- C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.
3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and monitor for hypertension
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and provide dietary education
- D. Administer diuretics and provide oral fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
5. What are the early signs of DVT?
- A. Leg pain, swelling, and redness
- B. Shortness of breath and high fever
- C. Cough and chest pain
- D. Decreased oxygen saturation and low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leg pain, swelling, and redness are early signs of DVT. DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) is a condition where blood clots form in deep veins, commonly in the legs. These clots can cause symptoms like pain, swelling, and redness in the affected leg. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms more commonly associated with other conditions like pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath and high fever), respiratory issues (cough and chest pain), and cardiovascular problems (decreased oxygen saturation and low blood pressure), respectively. Therefore, they are not indicative of early signs of DVT.
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