Nursing Elites

1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

• A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
• B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
• C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
• D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day
• B. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest
• C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet
• D. Encourage the client to increase activity levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. What are the complications of untreated fluid overload?

• A. Pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure
• B. Hypertension and electrolyte imbalance
• C. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance
• D. Pulmonary embolism and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Untreated fluid overload can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure. Pulmonary edema occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing and potentially life-threatening respiratory distress. Congestive heart failure can result from the heart's inability to pump effectively due to the excess fluid volume, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypertension, liver failure, pulmonary embolism, and dehydration are not the primary complications directly associated with untreated fluid overload.

5. What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections.
• B. Bacterial infections typically cause high fever.
• C. Both bacterial and viral infections cause rashes.
• D. Viral infections cause sudden onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.

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