Nursing Elites

1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

• A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
• B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
• C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
• D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.

2. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

• A. Maintain a calm manner
• B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
• C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

4. A client diagnosed with gout is receiving dietary instruction from a nurse. What dietary advice should be provided?

• A. Limit intake of fresh fruits and uncooked vegetables
• B. Limit intake of red meat and shellfish
• C. Limit intake of dairy products
• D. Increase intake of leafy greens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout flare-ups. Fresh fruits, uncooked vegetables, dairy products, and leafy greens are generally not associated with exacerbating gout symptoms and do not need to be significantly restricted in the diet of someone with gout.

5. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will drink liquids right up until the procedure.
• B. I will need to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated and will not feel any pain during the procedure.
• D. I will not need to follow any specific dietary restrictions for this procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.

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