Nursing Elites

1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

• A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
• B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
• C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
• D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

3. A nurse on a med surge unit has received change of shift report and will care for 4 clients. Which of the following clients' needs will the nurse assign to an AP?

• A. Feeding a client who was admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia
• B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk with a quad cane
• C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
• D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because reapplying a condom catheter for a client with urinary incontinence is a task that can be safely assigned to an assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of practice. Choice A involves the assessment of a client with aspiration pneumonia, which requires nursing judgment. Choice B requires teaching and guidance, which is the responsibility of the nurse. Choice D involves applying a sterile dressing, which requires nursing skills and knowledge.

4. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection?

• A. Fever, chills, and increased heart rate
• B. Increased white blood cell count and fever
• C. Shortness of breath and confusion
• D. Sweating and low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever, chills, and increased heart rate are classic signs of an infection. These symptoms indicate the body's response to an invading pathogen. Choice B, 'Increased white blood cell count and fever,' is not a primary symptom that a person would typically notice themselves, and white blood cell count needs to be tested. Choice C, 'Shortness of breath and confusion,' may indicate other conditions like heart or lung issues rather than a general infection. Choice D, 'Sweating and low blood pressure,' are not specific to infections and can be caused by various factors like heat or dehydration.

Similar Questions