ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
- A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
- B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
- C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
- D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.
2. What are the major risk factors for stroke?
- A. Hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking
- B. Obesity and lack of exercise
- C. Family history of cardiovascular disease
- D. Age and gender
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking are major risk factors for stroke. These factors contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, which can lead to a stroke. While obesity and lack of exercise are risk factors for cardiovascular diseases, they are not as directly linked to stroke as hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking. Family history of cardiovascular disease may increase the overall risk of heart problems, but it is not as specific to stroke as the factors listed in option A. Age and gender can influence the risk of stroke, but they are not modifiable risk factors like hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking, which can be reduced through lifestyle changes.
3. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will continue taking my isoniazid until I am no longer contagious.
- B. I should take my prescribed medication for at least 6 months.
- C. I will need to have a TB skin test every 3 months.
- D. I should wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.
4. What are the early signs of sepsis in a patient?
- A. Increased heart rate and fever
- B. Low blood pressure and confusion
- C. Elevated blood sugar and sweating
- D. Increased urine output and abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. These are early signs of sepsis and indicate a systemic infection. It is crucial to identify these signs promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Choice B is incorrect because low blood pressure and confusion are more indicative of severe sepsis or septic shock rather than early signs. Choice C is incorrect as elevated blood sugar and sweating are not typical early signs of sepsis. Choice D is also incorrect as increased urine output and abdominal pain are not early signs of sepsis.
5. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administer a sedative to reduce agitation
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Increase environmental stimulation
- D. Limit noise and provide a calm environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.
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