a nurse is assessing four newborns which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.

2. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

3. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

4. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

5. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.

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