Nursing Elites

1. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
• B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
• C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
• D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.

4. A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?

• A. Late decelerations
• B. Moderate variability of the FHR
• C. Cessation of uterine dilation
• D. Prolonged active phase of labor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by oxytocin administration, potentially compromising fetal well-being. Therefore, detecting late decelerations should prompt immediate reporting to the provider to prevent harm to the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for initiating oxytocin infusion. Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, cessation of uterine dilation may indicate a pause in labor progress but does not contraindicate oxytocin, and prolonged active phase of labor may necessitate oxytocin administration to augment contractions and progress labor.

5. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
• B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
• C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
• D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.

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