Nursing Elites

1. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

2. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
• B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
• C. Contractions are strong in intensity
• D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

3. When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?

• A. A client who has mitral valve prolapse
• B. A client who has been exposed to AIDS
• C. All pregnant clients
• D. A client who has a history of preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.

4. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased platelet count
• B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. Decreased megakaryocytes
• D. Increased WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

5. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
• B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
• C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
• D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.

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