Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

2. A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?

• A. Client's diet
• B. Client's age
• C. Client's genetic background
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.

3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

4. A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Take it at the same time every day
• C. It can be stopped suddenly
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it at the same time every day.' It is important to take levothyroxine consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because stopping levothyroxine suddenly can lead to adverse effects due to sudden changes in hormone levels. Choice D is also incorrect as hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with levothyroxine.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Notify the provider.
• B. Report the incident to the risk manager.
• C. Check the condition of the patient.
• D. Complete an incident report.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.

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