ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?
- A. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
- B. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
- C. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%.
- D. A client who has a temperature of 39°C (102°F).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.
2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client’s family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.
3. While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Apply an internal fetal monitor
- D. Administer an analgesic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
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