ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?
- A. 2100
- B. 900
- C. 1300
- D. 1800
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.
2. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.
3. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Significant abdominal distention
- B. Large bowel movements
- C. High-pitched bowel sounds
- D. Copious vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.
4. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit sodium intake
- C. Avoid potassium supplements
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
5. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
- B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
- C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
- D. Place the sensor on the index finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.
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