ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 14 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
- D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.
2. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of adolescents. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Expect pain in the testicles during self-examination.
- B. The testicles should be uniform in size and shape when examined.
- C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
- D. The testicles will shrink if cancer is present.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because during a testicular self-examination, it is crucial to note a uniform consistency of the testicles. Any lumps, changes in size, or inconsistencies should be reported to a healthcare provider promptly. Choice A is incorrect because pain is not typically expected during a testicular self-examination. Choice B is incorrect as uniform size and shape are not as relevant as uniform consistency. Choice D is incorrect; testicular cancer usually causes enlargement rather than shrinking of the testicles.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed levetiracetam. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine. Levetiracetam requires monitoring of renal function, specifically serum creatinine levels, as it is primarily eliminated by the kidneys. Monitoring liver function (Choice A) is not necessary for levetiracetam. Blood glucose levels (Choice B) are typically not affected by levetiracetam. While monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important in general patient care, it is not specifically required for clients prescribed levetiracetam.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.
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