Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for eclampsia. What is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess for hyperreflexia
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 15 minutes
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess for hyperreflexia.' Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves seizures. Hyperreflexia, an overactive or overresponsive reflex, is often an early sign of impending eclampsia. By assessing for hyperreflexia, nurses can identify this warning sign and take preventive measures to manage the condition before seizures occur. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important but assessing for hyperreflexia takes precedence as it can lead to immediate life-threatening complications. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may ultimately be necessary, the immediate priority is to assess for hyperreflexia to prevent seizures.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Limit intake of processed foods
• B. Increase intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Monitor for allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit intake of processed foods. Processed foods are often high in sodium, which goes against the goal of a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables are recommended for a low-sodium diet due to their natural low sodium content. The use of accessory muscles and monitoring for allergic reactions are not related to dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Deltoid
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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