ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?
- A. Leukorrhea
- B. Supine hypotension
- C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
- D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.
2. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
- A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
- C. Kleihauer-Betke test
- D. Indirect Coombs' test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.
3. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
4. During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?
- A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
- B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
- C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
- D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Palpating the fundus of the uterus during Leopold maneuvers is crucial to identify the fetal lie. This technique allows the nurse to determine the position of the baby's back and locate the fetal heart sounds, aiding in assessing the fetal lie. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to identifying the fetal lie during Leopold maneuvers. Applying palms to the sides of the uterus or grasping the lower uterine segment do not provide the necessary information about the fetal lie. Standing facing the client's feet and outlining cephalic prominence is more related to assessing the fetal presentation, not the fetal lie.
5. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.
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