Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Urinary frequency
• C. Epistaxis
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.

2. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care of a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following nursing interventions is the highest priority?

• A. Initiating breastfeeding
• B. Performing the initial bath
• C. Giving a vitamin K injection
• D. Covering the newborn's head with a cap

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Covering the newborn's head with a cap is the highest priority immediately following birth to prevent heat loss. Newborns are at risk of hypothermia due to their immature thermoregulation, making it crucial to maintain their body temperature. By covering the newborn's head with a cap, heat loss through the head is minimized, helping to keep the baby warm and stable in the immediate post-birth period. Initiating breastfeeding, performing the initial bath, and giving a vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not as high a priority as ensuring the newborn's thermal stability.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?

• A. Leukorrhea
• B. Supine hypotension
• C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.

5. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

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