Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Urinary frequency
• C. Epistaxis
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.

2. A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?

• A. Second stage
• B. Fourth stage
• C. Transition phase
• D. Latent phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in active labor displaying irritability, the urge to have a bowel movement, nausea, vomiting, and expressing frustration indicates that they are in the transition phase of labor. This phase typically occurs just before entering the second stage of labor, marked by intense contractions and cervical dilation from 8 to 10 centimeters. During this phase, the client may feel overwhelmed, exhausted, and may express a sense of losing control. It is a crucial phase indicating that the client is close to delivering the baby. Choice A, the second stage of labor, is characterized by complete cervical dilation and the birth of the baby, not the symptoms described in the scenario. Choice B, the fourth stage, is the period following the delivery of the placenta, not the phase before giving birth. Choice D, the latent phase, is the early phase of labor where contractions are mild and occur at irregular intervals, not the phase described in the scenario.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

4. A woman in a women's health clinic is receiving teaching about nutritional intake during her 8th week of gestation. The healthcare provider should advise the woman to increase her daily intake of which of the following nutrients?

• A. Calcium
• B. Vitamin E
• C. Iron
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, the recommended daily iron intake is higher compared to non-pregnant women. Pregnant women should aim for 27 mg/day of iron, while non-pregnant women require 15 mg/day if under 19 years old and 18 mg/day if between 19 and 50 years old. Iron is essential during pregnancy to support the increased blood volume and ensure the proper oxygen supply to the fetus. Calcium is important for bone health but does not need a significant increase during early pregnancy. Vitamin E and Vitamin D are important but do not have specific increases recommended during the 8th week of gestation.

5. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

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