Nursing Elites

1. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being taught about medication management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should take your medication with a high-fiber meal.
• B. You should take your medication on an empty stomach.
• C. You should take your medication with a calcium supplement.
• D. You should take your medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should take your medication on an empty stomach.' When educating a client with hypothyroidism, it is essential to advise taking thyroid medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption and effectiveness. Taking the medication with food, especially high-fiber or with supplements like calcium, can interfere with absorption and reduce its efficacy. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow the recommendation of taking the medication on an empty stomach. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with a high-fiber meal (Choice A) or with a calcium supplement (Choice C) can hinder absorption, and taking it before bedtime (Choice D) does not optimize absorption compared to taking it on an empty stomach.

3. What is a true statement about caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube?

• A. The NG tube should be flushed with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
• B. The client should be positioned in a supine position.
• C. The NG tube should be advanced 5 cm if resistance is met.
• D. The client's nasal mucosa should be inspected daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is crucial to maintain its patency and prevent blockages. This routine ensures the tube stays clear and functional, enabling proper delivery of medications and nutrition to the client. Regular flushing also helps prevent residue buildup or clogs within the tube, reducing risks like aspiration or inaccurate medication dosing.

4. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

5. When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, which of the following actions should the nurse take when speaking with the client?

• A. Speak in a high-pitched voice.
• B. Exaggerate lip movements.
• C. Face the client when speaking.
• D. Use a monotone voice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, it is essential for the nurse to face the client when speaking. By facing the client, the nurse allows the individual to read lips and see facial expressions, which can significantly improve communication effectiveness. This approach facilitates better understanding and helps the client feel more connected during interactions. Speaking in a high-pitched voice (Choice A) is not recommended as it may distort speech sounds. Exaggerating lip movements (Choice B) can be patronizing and ineffective. Using a monotone voice (Choice D) lacks intonation that helps convey meaning and emotions in speech, making it harder for the client to understand.

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