Nursing Elites

1. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

2. During tracheostomy care, what action should a healthcare professional take?

• A. Use clean technique to remove the inner cannula.
• B. Remove the outer cannula for cleaning.
• C. Soak the inner cannula in normal saline.
• D. Change tracheostomy ties if they are wet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Changing tracheostomy ties if they are wet is essential to prevent infection and maintain skin integrity. Wet ties can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of skin breakdown and other complications. Regularly changing wet ties promotes cleanliness, reduces the likelihood of complications, and ensures optimal care for the client with a tracheostomy.

3. A client has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Pickles
• B. Canned soup
• C. Fresh fruits
• D. Smoked salmon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh fruits are naturally low in sodium, making them a suitable choice for a low-sodium diet. They provide essential nutrients and are a healthy option for individuals who need to limit their sodium intake. Pickles (Choice A) and canned soup (Choice B) are typically high in sodium and should be avoided in a low-sodium diet. Smoked salmon (Choice D) is also usually high in sodium due to the smoking process, so it is not a recommended choice for a low-sodium diet.

4. When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a 10-mL syringe with an 18-gauge needle.
• B. Cleanse the wound from the center outward.
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing.
• D. Pack the wound tightly with gauze.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, the nurse should cleanse the wound from the center outward. This technique helps prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the wound, reducing the risk of contamination and promoting effective wound healing. By using a circular motion from the cleanest area to the least clean areas, debris and bacteria are moved away from the wound site, decreasing the chances of infection.

5. A client has a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a heat lamp to the area for 20 minutes each day.
• B. Change the dressing on the heel every 12 hours.
• C. Apply a transparent dressing over the heel.
• D. Use a water pressure mattress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying a transparent dressing over the heel is beneficial as it can protect the ulcer from friction and shear, and allow for continuous observation of the wound. This intervention promotes healing and prevents further damage to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because applying heat can increase the risk of tissue damage and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as changing the dressing every 12 hours may disrupt the wound healing process and is not necessary for a stage 1 pressure ulcer. Choice D is incorrect because using a water pressure mattress is not a specific intervention for a stage 1 pressure ulcer on the heel.

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