a nurse is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

2. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

3. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.

4. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.

5. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

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