Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

2. A client with hyperlipidemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in saturated fats.
• B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in cholesterol.
• C. I should increase my intake of foods high in trans fats.
• D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in fiber.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In hyperlipidemia management, decreasing the intake of foods high in cholesterol is crucial to improve lipid levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A and C are incorrect as increasing intake of saturated fats or trans fats can raise cholesterol levels, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing intake of foods high in fiber is not recommended as fiber-rich foods are beneficial for heart health, which is important in managing hyperlipidemia.

3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.

5. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

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