Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Eggs
• B. Cheese
• C. Chicken breast
• D. Butter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is a suitable recommendation for a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol. Eggs and cheese are high in cholesterol and not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Butter is also high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet.

2. A client has a new prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Bananas
• B. Oranges
• C. Spinach
• D. Apples

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients on potassium-sparing diuretics need to avoid high-potassium foods to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples are a low-potassium fruit, making them a suitable recommendation for clients on this type of diuretic. Bananas, oranges, and spinach are high-potassium foods that should be avoided by clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics to prevent complications such as hyperkalemia.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

5. What action should the healthcare provider take for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the patient's chest.
• C. Clamp the chest tube when ambulating the patient.
• D. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level is essential for the chest tube's effective functioning. This maintains the integrity of the system, prevents air from entering the pleural space, and facilitates proper drainage. Stripping the drainage tubing, keeping the drainage system below the chest level, or clamping the chest tube during ambulation are not recommended practices and can lead to complications.

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