Nursing Elites

1. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client regarding protein intake. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider include as an example of an incomplete protein?

• A. Eggs
• B. Soybeans
• C. Lentils
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lentils. Incomplete proteins lack one or more essential amino acids required for protein synthesis in the body. Examples of incomplete proteins include lentils, vegetables, grains, nuts, and seeds. Lentils, a plant-based protein source, are considered incomplete as they do not contain all essential amino acids in sufficient amounts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as eggs, soybeans, and yogurt are examples of complete proteins, containing all essential amino acids in the right proportions for the body's needs.

3. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer
• B. Reposition the client every 8 hours
• C. Assist the client with early ambulation
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client with early ambulation is crucial in preventing respiratory complications after abdominal surgery. Early ambulation helps to prevent conditions like atelectasis and pneumonia by promoting lung expansion and preventing pooling of respiratory secretions. It also aids in improving circulation, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis, and enhancing overall recovery. Instructing the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer (Choice A) is beneficial for lung expansion but is more focused on respiratory therapy rather than preventing complications. Repositioning the client every 8 hours (Choice B) is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing respiratory complications. Maintaining the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours (Choice D) can lead to complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis due to decreased lung expansion and mobility.

4. When planning care for a client with a pressure ulcer, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a donut-shaped cushion.
• C. Reposition the client every 3 hours.
• D. Use a transparent film dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer is to use a transparent film dressing. This dressing provides a protective barrier against external contaminants while allowing for wound inspection, promoting healing. Massaging the reddened area can cause further damage to the skin and should be avoided. Donut-shaped cushions can increase pressure on the ulcer site rather than alleviate it. Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure for pressure ulcers, but once an ulcer has developed, using a transparent film dressing is a more appropriate intervention to facilitate healing and protect the wound site.

5. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

Similar Questions