Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Swelling of the affected limb.
• B. Diminished peripheral pulses.
• C. Coolness of the affected limb.
• D. Redness and warmth of the affected limb.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.

2. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
• B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
• D. Weigh the client weekly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.

3. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• C. Use a 1-inch needle.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.

5. What is the primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare?

• A. EHRs eliminate the need for paper records.
• B. EHRs ensure complete patient confidentiality.
• C. EHRs improve the accuracy of patient information.
• D. EHRs reduce the time spent on documentation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare is that they improve the accuracy and completeness of patient information. By utilizing EHRs, healthcare providers have access to more reliable and up-to-date patient data, which leads to better patient care outcomes. This improved accuracy enables healthcare professionals to make better-informed decisions and provide more effective treatments, ultimately enhancing patient safety and quality of care.

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