Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Swelling of the affected limb.
• B. Diminished peripheral pulses.
• C. Coolness of the affected limb.
• D. Redness and warmth of the affected limb.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of cirrhosis is receiving dietary management education from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is beneficial for managing fluid retention and symptoms of cirrhosis. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening edema and ascites commonly associated with cirrhosis. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their intake of sodium-rich foods is crucial in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Option A is incorrect as increasing sodium intake would exacerbate fluid retention. Option C is irrelevant to cirrhosis management unless the client has lactose intolerance. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially if they have complications like hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Monitor weight daily.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Increase salt intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily is crucial when taking furosemide to detect fluid retention or loss. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt through urine. Changes in weight can indicate fluid shifts, which could be a sign of inadequate response to the medication or worsening condition. Therefore, monitoring weight daily is essential to assess the effectiveness of furosemide therapy and detect any potential issues early on. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not furosemide. Taking furosemide with food is not necessary, as it can be taken with or without food. Increasing salt intake is contradictory to the purpose of furosemide, which aims to eliminate excess salt from the body.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

Similar Questions