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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
- A. Oxygen saturation 94%
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing
- D. Peripheral cyanosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which of the following client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor?
- A. The client has a history of recurring bowel inflammation.
- B. The client has recently increased their exercise regimen.
- C. The client is taking herbal supplements.
- D. The client is experiencing increased stress.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recurring bowel inflammation can decrease gastrointestinal motility, affecting the absorption of oral medications. This can lead to decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Choice B is incorrect because increasing exercise would not typically impact the absorption of arthritis medication. Choice C is incorrect as herbal supplements may not directly affect the absorption of conventional arthritis medication. Choice D is also incorrect as stress, while it can impact overall health, is less likely to directly affect the effectiveness of arthritis medication compared to gastrointestinal issues.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.
4. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
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