Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a sign of levothyroxine toxicity and requires immediate attention. Weight loss may actually be an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy as it can help regulate metabolism in hypothyroidism. Insomnia can occur as a side effect of levothyroxine but is not as concerning as heat intolerance. Dry skin is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy, so it is not a priority finding to report to the provider.

2. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Recommend mental health counseling.
• B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
• C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
• D. Provide information about a support group.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.

3. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

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