ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Pupil reaction to light
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Bleeding gums
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.
5. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Tremors
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.
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